Discuss three principles that are commonly used to define insanity. How is insanity most commonly defined today?
PSY408
ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
Text: Abnormal Psychology
1 st Edition, 2008
ISBN: 0-205-48683-5/978-0-205-48683-0
Authors:
James N. Butcher, Susan Mineka, and Jill M. Hooley
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7) All of the following were likely to be part of moral treatment in the 1800’s EXCEPT
A) character development.
B) antipsychotic medication.
C) manual labor.
D) spiritual discussions.
8) Mesmer was a proponent of
A) the mental hygiene movement.
B) community mental health clinics.
C) humanitarianism.
D) the power of animal magnetism.
9) Upon deciding to study individuals with a given disorder, what is the next step that should be taken?
A) Select criteria for identifying individuals with the disorder.
B) Establish which subjects will be the control group and which will be in the experimental group.
C) Gather survey data to determine where your subjects are most likely to reside.
D) Determine what treatment approach will be tested.
10) To determine whether certain characteristics are true of people in general, and not just of people with mental disorders, it is important to use
A) an experimental design.
B) a control group.
C) a criterion group.
D) a representative sample of individuals with the disorder.
11) Fred refuses to speak at school, although he speaks normally at home. His therapist plans out a treatment where Fred is given a gold star every time he answers his teacher, and can then trade in his stars for prizes. Fred begins speaking in class. The therapist then tells the teacher to stop the program for a couple of weeks. Fred stopped talking during that time. The teacher then starting giving Fred stars again, and Fred again began to talk. This is an example of
A) a case study.
B) an ABAB experimental design study.
C) a correlational study.
D) a self-report study.
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12) Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because
A) effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding.
B) such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible.
C) disagreements about the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology.
D) classification of disorders cannot be done without such information.
13) A predisposition towards developing a disorder
A) necessarily is biological.
B) is called a diathesis.
C) necessarily is a psycho-social stressor.
0) increases the likelihood of developing any given disorder by 50.
14) Which statement about neural communication is accurate?
A) All neurotransmitters increase the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will transmit a message.
B) Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another.
C) The reason neural messages are transmitted from cell to cell is because they physically touch each other.
0) The part ofthe neuron that receives messages is called the synapse.
15) Which of the following statements is true?
A) The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience.
B) Genes do not affect biochemical processes.
C) Genes playa role in most mental disorders.
D) Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes.
16) Attractive children and unattractive babies tend to be treated differently. In other words, an infant’s physical phenotype may alter how others respond to him or her. What type of genotype- environment correlation is this an example of?
A) evocative
B) passive
C) active
0) persuasive
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17) The interpersonal perspective
A) arose as a reaction against the unscientific methods of psychoanalysis.
B) was introduced by Erik Erikson.
C) is the most influential humanistic perspective today.
0) emphasizes social rather than inner determinants of behavior.
18) After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. He goes for treatment, where he is gradually exposed to dogs, until he can be in the same room with a dog without feeling any fear. Three weeks later, while walking in his neighborhood, Jose hears a dog barking viciously. For a few weeks after this, his fear returns. This shows
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) extinction.
C) stimulus-stimulus expectancy. 0) the treatment didn’t really work.
19) If a response has been learned through conditioning, it would be appropriate to treat it using the process of
A) extinction.
B) stimulus-stimulus expectancy.
C) displacement.
0) spontaneous recovery.
20) “Projective” and “objective” are two types of tests.
A) psychodynamically-oriented
B) personality
C) intelligence
0) neuropsychological
21) Why are the SSRls the most commonly used antidepressants today?
A) They are not addictive.
B) Because they only have minimal effects on dopamine, they are less likely to produce side ef- fects.
C) Their side effects are more tolerable than those of the first generation antidepressants. 0) They are more effective than the classic tricyclic antidepressants.
22) Process-experiential therapy is a combination of
A) cognitive behavioral therapy and psychodynamic therapy.
B) client-centered therapy and Gestalt therapy.
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C) cognitive behavioral therapy and Gestalt therapy. 0) behavior therapy and client-centered therapy.
23) Which of the following is a criticism of humanistic-experiential therapies?
A) impersonal approach
B) too focused on behavior
C) too much emphasis on early experiences 0) goals are not clear
24) A clinical psychologist who said that maladaptive behaviors are shared between members of a relationship and not just the responsibility of an individual would be in harmony with thera-
pists who take the approach.
A) humanistic
B) cognitive-behavioral
C) classical psychoanalytic 0) family systems
25) Which of the following is the most significant challenge to establishing that therapy is effective?
A) It is impossible to determine what component of a treatment plan is responsible for a
positive outcome.
B) Many people improve without formal treatment.
C) Few psychotherapies are more effective than medical treatments. 0) Placebo effects commonly occur.
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Written Assignment for Unit One
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a standard font (l.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words.Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1) Discuss some of the difficulties involved in attempting to define abnormal behavior.
2) Describe two of the methods for studying genetic influences. What can they tell us and what are their limitations?
3) Discuss three different ways that the success of therapy can be assessed. What factors complicate the determination of whether or not treatment is successful?
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) The fact that physical conditions affect psychological functioning is recognized by the consid-
eration of _
A) Axis III
B) AxisV
C) Axis II
D) all of the above
2) Unlike earlier editions of the DSM, the DSM-IV-TR includes
A) a category called Mental Disorders Due to a General Medical Condition on Axis I.
B) psychosomatic disorders on Axis II.
C) organic mental disorders on Axis V.
D) Axis III for medical conditions.
3) Eustress is:
A) a response to a happy life event.
B) characterized by euphoria.
C) seen when a situation is ambiguous.
D) the same thing as distress.
4) What do eustress and distress have in common?
A) Both tax one’s resources and coping skills.
B) They usually last indefinitely.
C) Both occur without warning.
D) They have an equivalent potential for causing lasting damage.
5) An individual with a high stress tolerance:
A) can function well in the face of a high level of stress.
B) may feel threatened more readily than those with low stress tolerance.
C) is likely to be particularly vulnerable to slight frustration.
D) is particularly vulnerable to acute stress disorder.
6) All of the following are examples of lifestyle factors that impact health EXCEPT
A) tobacco use.
B) unsafe sex.
C) diabetes.
D) sleep loss.
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7) One research study found that those who had experienced a heart attack and showed symp-
toms of were five times more likely to die in the next 6 months than their mentally
healthy counterparts.
A) depression
B) hostility
C) anxiety
0) all of the above
8) For which of the following would the use of stress-inoculation training be most effective?
A) coping with the loss of a loved one
B) dealing with the aftermath of a rape
C) minimizing the impact of losing one’s home 0) preparing for chemotherapy
9) A significant drawback of the use of medication for PTSO is
A) there are no significant drawbacks.
B) it can actually serve as a reinforcer for one of the major symptoms of PTSO because it can al- Iowa person to avoid the feelings associated with the trauma.
C) it can work well during the day, however the person often continues to have nightmares and sleep disturbances.
0) it can make people overly sensitized to the “warning signs” of distress.
10) Which of the following illustrates how cognitive variables may act to maintain acquired fears?
A) Karen would think happy thoughts whenever she drove over a bridge.
B) Ryan’s fear of heights caused him to always wonder just how high up he was in a building.
C) Jane no longer went to the park due to her fear of dogs.
0) Melvin knew that his heart was racing because he was afraid.
11) Compared to anxiety, panic is
A) less focused.
B) more intense.
C) slower to develop. 0) longer lasting.
12) was once thought to be a fear of crowded places, but now is seen as a complication
of having panic attacks in public.
A) Agoraphobia
B) General social phobia
C) Claustrophobia
0) Generalized anxiety disorder
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13) James began having panic attacks immediately after his mother died suddenly. As they be- came more frequent, he began to fear going into public situations where they might occur. Now he is unable to leave his apartment and has his many friends go out to shop for him. What is unusual about James’ condition?
A) It is unusual for a person with severe agoraphobia to be a man.
B) It is unusual for panic attacks to begin after a stressful life event.
C) Most people with agoraphobia don’t have many friends.
D) There is nothing unusual about this case.
14) Which of the following is unique about OCD, as compared to other anxiety disorders?
A) It usually begins in childhood.
B) It afflicts more men than women.
C) The incidence is about equal for men and women.
D) It is a culture-bound disorder.
15) Which of the following is a true statement about Mowrer’s two-process theory of avoidance learning?
A) It provides an explanation for the development of all anxiety disorders.
B) Neutral stimuli become associated with frightening thoughts through Classical conditioning, and are reinforced with repeated behavior which reduces anxiety.
C) It does not account for the effectiveness of extinction procedures in the treatment of OCD.
D) While it suggests a mechanism for the development of GAD, it does not account for the devel- opment of panic disorder and OCD.
16) What do all mood disorders have in common?
A) The presence of a negative mood state.
B) The presence of irrational thoughts.
C) They are at least 6 months in duration.
D) They are characterized by emotional extremes.
17) Deena has major depressive disorder. Most days she feels very sad, but when her sister came and told Deena she was going to be an Aunt, Deena felt happy for a little while. She has been gaining weight and sleeping much of the day. Deena most likely has
A) psychotic features.
B) double depression.
C) atypical features.
D) melancholic features.
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18) The average duration of an untreated episode of depression is
A) unknown as individuals not seeking treatment haven’t been studied.
B) 2 years.
C) 6 months. 0) 1 year.
19) Abramson revised the learned helplessness theory to suggest that
A) the internal/external dimension of attributions is the most important to depression.
B) consistent pessimism along with helplessness can increase a persons chance of becoming de- pressed.
C) hopelessness is needed to produce depression, helplessness is not important.
0) the number of negative life events someone experiences is more important than their attribu- tions for those events.
20) When a nondepressed student lives with a depressed roommate, which of the following often results?
A) frequent verbal fights which may even become physical
B) increased caretaking by the nondepressed roommate, but only after the nondepressed room- mate becomes depressed
C) increased negativity and hostility in the roommate who was not originally depressed 0) a decrease in depression in the depressed roommate
21) Somatization disorder
A) involves having pain in at least five different areas of the body.
B) involves multiple symptoms involving one (and only one) body part offunction.
C) involves multiple symptoms of at least four different types.
0) involves the fear of having multiple different diseases which will ultimately lead to death.
22) Following the rejection of his latest novel, Jim experienced an inability to make some move- ments with his right hand. While he was unable to write, he could scratch and make other simple motions with his affected hand. Two weeks later he was able to write again. What is unique about Jim’s case of conversion disorder?
A) Jim only lost the ability to move his right hand.
B) Jim is male.
C) Jim’s symptoms subsided within two weeks. 0) Jim had some ability to move his hand.
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23) A person who has conversion disorder where the symptom is blindness
A) is likely to trip over every object in an unfamiliar room.
B) is likely to refuse to move in an unfamiliar room because of extreme anxiety.
C) is likely to close his/her eyes in an unfamiliar room before walking about.
D) is likely to walk around an unfamiliar room without bumping into things.
24) After learning of her father’s death, Sophia felt dazed and confused. When speaking of her response to the news, she said she felt like she was in a movie watching the events happening to her. Despite this strange feeling, she understood who she was, what was happening and did the things that she needed to do, it was just the world around her which seemed odd. What can be said of Sophia’s response to her father’S death?
A) Her response is not typical and suggests that she is suffering from acute stress disorder.
B) She had a psychotic break.
C) She experience an instance of depersonalization.
D) She experienced an instance of derealization.
25) All of the following are explanations for the increased prevalence of DID EXCEPT
A) the increased incidence of sexual abuse.
B) therapists may be actively looking for DID.
C) changes in the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia.
D) increased public awareness of DID.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) How do you distinguish between the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, purging type?
A) People with the bulimic type are normal weight, people with the anorexic type are under-
weight.
B) Altered eating and exercise habits result in missed periods in the bulimic type only.
C) The bulimic type involves throwing up and the anorexic type involves fasting.
D) The bulimic type results in more severe health consequences than the anorexic type.
2) Cindy is 5 ‘8″ tall and weighs 92 pounds. She is very concerned about her weight. However,
at times she finds herself eating large amounts of food – several boxes of cookies, gallons of ice cream, entire cakes – all in an evening. Afterwards, she makes herself throw up. Cindy’s most likely diagnosis is
A) anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type.
B) anorexia nervosa, restricting type.
C) no disorder.
D) bulimia nervosa, purging type.
3) Which ofthe following do those with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have in common?
A) restricted eating
B) a need for control
C) fear of being or becoming fat
D) below normal weight
4) Elena binges on high calorie foods and then makes herself throw up. She feels terribly ashamed and distressed by what she does. You would predict
A) she will not stop because her vomiting is reinforced by anxiety reduction.
B) she will stop making herself throw up because she is ashamed and distressed.
C) she will stop because her vomiting is being punished by the feelings of disgust and shame.
D) she will not stop because she has become physiologically addicted to vomiting.
5) Binge-eating disorder
A) is the eating disorder diagnosis most recently added to the DSM.
B) is more common in males than in females.
C) usually develops into anorexia, binge-eating/purging SUbtype.
D) has not yet been formally recognized as a distinct clinical syndrome.
6) All of the following are reasons for the effectiveness of antidepressants in the treatment of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT
A) improved mood.
B) lessened preoccupation with physical appearance.
C) decreased frequency of binges.
D) decreased appetite.
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7) Our current knowledge of the efficacy of treating eating disorders
A) suggests that hospitalization is most effective for long-term maintenance of treatment gains.
B) is quite thorough because there are many controlled studies comparing long-term outcomes. e) suggests that cognitive-behavioral therapy is the treatment of choice.
D) is much more detailed for anorexia nervosa than for bulimia nervosa.
8) Grehlin
A) is a hormone that usually leads to decreased food intake.
B) is a hormone that helps the body regain its set-point.
e) is a hormone that is a promising new treatment for obesity. D) is a hormone that is an appetite stimulator.
9) Orlistat, which works by interfering with the absorption offat
A) works very well for extreme obesity but not regular obesity.
B) does not work well for obesity. e) works very well for obesity.
D) results have been uncertain.
10) Helen is suspicious and doubts the loyalty of even her friends. She is unwilling to forgive
perceived insults and never forgets a grudge. She is most likely to be diagnosed with _
personality disorder.
A) schizotypal
B) schizoid
C) paranoid
D) histrionic
11) Luisa is a lively and emotional graduate student. She dresses provocatively and behaves in a very seductive manner with her male professors. She has had a long string of short-lived, stormy romances. Luisa is most likely to have a diagnosis of
A) dependent personality disorder.
B) narcissistic personality disorder.
e) passive-aggressive personality disorder. D) histrionic personality disorder.
12) Which basic personality traits from the 5 factor model seem most important in the develop- ment of histrionic personality disorder?
A) high neuroticism and low agreeableness
B) low openness to feelings and high fantasy proneness e) high conscientiousness and low assertiveness
D) high extraversion and high neuroticism
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13) Which basic personality traits from the 5 factor model seem most important in the develop- ment of narcissistic personality disorder?
A) low agreeableness and high fantasy proneness S) low excitement seeking and high neuroticism
C) low fantasy proneness and high impulsivity
D) high extraversion and high agreeableness
14) Hattie has a dependent personality disorder. This means that she
A) has difficulty in initiating relationships. S) experiences little distress in her life.
C) prefers being alone rather than being with people who might criticize her.
D) has acute discomfort when she is alone.
15) What is the main difference between Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)?
A) People with OCPD don’t have true obsessions or compulsions like people with OCD have. S) People with OCPD are more conscientious about their rituals than people with OCD.
C) People with OCD can do a compulsion once and feel better, people with OCPD never feel bet- ter no matter how many times they do them.
D) none of the above
16) Which ofthe following statements about alcohol problems is accurate?
A) Alcohol abuse is a “pure” disorder, with less than 5 percent of alcohol abusers having a coex- isting mental disorder.
S) Although alcohol impairs motor behavior it does not lower performance on complex cognitive tasks.
C) The lifetime prevalence for alcoholism in the United States is about 30 percent.
D) The average life span of an alcoholic is 12 years shorter than the average citizen.
17) When John stopped drinking after his last week-long binge, he became very ill. He was disori- ented, hallucinating, and paranoid. John seems to be experiencing
A) alcohol withdrawal delirium. S) alcohol amnestic disorder.
C) alcohol-induced psychosis.
D) a severe hangover.
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18) Which of the following men has an alcohol-risk personality?
A) Sean, who is impulsive, risk-taking, and poor at planning.
B) Brian, who is organized, detail-oriented, and ambitious.
C) Art, who is frequently depressed and has a low level of self-esteem.
D) Tim, who is shy, anxious, and withdrawn.
19) Which of the following is a narcotic?
A) marijuana S) heroin
C) tobacco
D) alcohol
20) Barbituate withdrawal
A) are more dangerous and long-lasting than most drugs.
B) is similar to withdrawal from cocaine and opium.
C) causes psychological distress but no withdrawal symptoms.
D) lasts for a short time but is very painful.
21) Which of the following is true?
A) People tend to be envious of sexual nonconformists.
B) People tend to believe their current sexual standards are correct and to be intolerant of non- conformists.
C) Attitudes about what is sexually”normal” have stayed surprisingly the same over time.
D) Attitudes about what is sexually “normal” are extremely consistent across cultures.
22) Gary finds himself sexually aroused by dressing in women’s clothing. He sometimes steals the clothes from women and from stores. He has a wife and is happy in his marriage. Gary’s most likely diagnosis is
A) gender identity disorder. S) exhibitionism.
C) transvestic fetishism.
D) fetishism.
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23) The most common theory about voyeurs is
A) they become classically conditioned to respond in a stronger way to the female body than most males.
B) they were exposed to excess male hormones during prenatal development.
C) with the advent of more sexually explicit movies and magazines, voyeurism is quickly becom- ing extinct.
0) they have difficulty related to women and find peeping satisfies needs in a way that feels safe and powerful.
24) According to OSM-IV-TR, the two components of gender identity disorder are cross-gender
identification and _
A) gender role disorder
B) a history of childhood gender identity disorder
C) gender dysphoria
0) transvestic fetishism
25) Most female transsexuals
A) have always felt that they should be male.
B) want to be homosexual men.
C) did not have gender identity disorder as children.
0) have a paraphilia in which they are attracted to themselves as a man.
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Written Assignment for Unit Three
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words.Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1) Discuss the studies on rats and “comfort food”
2) Discuss the two theories about the possible causes of narcissistic personality disorder.
3) What do all abused substances have in common? What are some inherited factors that might lead to an increased vulnerability to substance abuse?
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1) “My father and I swiggered to the beach yesterday’: This is an example of a
A) auditory hallucination.
B) negative symptom.
C) delusion.
D) neologism.
2) DeJuan is highly suggestible and automatically obeys the commands of his brother. He some- times stands in the same strange posture for hours despite his hands and feet becoming swol- len due to immobility. Which subtype of schizophrenia does this best illustrate?
A) undifferentiated
B) positive-symptom
C) disorganized
D) catatonic
3) Schizophrenia is best described as a
A) genetically determined polygenic disorder.
B) genetically influenced polygenic disorder.
C) genetically determined monogenic disorder.
D) genetically influenced monogenic disorder.
4) Compared to his nonschizophrenic identical twin, Matthew (who is schizophrenic) is more likely to
A) be artistically or musically talented.
B) have been born with physical birth defects.
C) have a higher intelligence level on IQ tests.
D) have been considered “different” or “odd” in childhood.
5) Which ofthe following is a brain area that has been shown to be involved in schizophrenia?
A) hippocampus
B) occipital lobe
C) hypothalamus
D) parietal lobe
6) Aberrant salience means that
A) people with schizophrenia often show unusual motor behaviors.
B) dysregulated dopamine can cause people with schizophrenia to pay too much attention to stimuli that are not actually important.
C) enlarged brain ventricles cause people with schizophrenia to be unable to concentrate.
D) a large amount of communication deviance in the family can cause a person with schizophre- nia to relapse.
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7) There is a new trend to focus on dopamine receptor sensitivity rather than on dopamine itself because
A) there is strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have too much dopamine.
B) the is strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have used too many drugs.
e) there is no strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have too much dopamine. D) there is only one type of dopamine receptor.
8) What are some of the stressors that have been found to increase the risk of developing schizo- phrenia?
A) being an identical twin
B) being a recent immigrant e) living alone
D) being raised in an isolated rural area
9) One-on-one psychotherapy for people with schizophrenia
A) has many side effects.
B) shows very little promise.
e) seems to be very effective when combined with medication. D) is an effective replacement for medication.
10) The terms functional and organic are no longer found in the DSM. Functional was previously
used to indicate a origin while organic was used to refer to brain damage of with
a(n) cause.
A) psychological; biological
B) genetic; environmental e) acute; chronic
D) known; unknown
11) Someone with focal brain damage in their left hemisphere
A) will have anterograde amnesia.
B) will have problems with nonverbal reasoning.
e) will have problems with understanding new situations. D will have problems with processing language.
12) Dementia in HIV
A) may be due to the HIV virus directly attacking brain cells.
B) is a common side effect of antiviral therapy.
e) results from acute damage to temporal lobe structures.
D) is always due to secondary infections that attack the brain.
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13) The only neuropsychological syndrome for which antiviral therapy is likely to be helpful is
A) amnestic disorder.
B) multi-infarct dementia.
C) vascular dementia.
D) AIDS-related dementia.
14) How does vascular dementia differs from Alzheimer’s Disease?
A) It occurs at an earlier age.
B) Accompanying mood disorders are more common.
C) The early clinical picture is more homogeneous than that seen in Alzheimer’s Disease.
D) It is not progressive.
15) Before the accident, Bob was unemployed and had few friends. Lionel, who suffered compara- ble head trauma, was a successful businessman and had just married. Which of these men should have the more favorable outcome and why?
A) Bob, because his lack of responsibilities will permit him to focus on getting well.
B) There is no reason to expect that these men will have different outcomes.
C) Lionel, because he is more likely to be motivated to recover.
D) Bob, because he will benefit from relearning basic social skills.
16) Which of the following both protects children from environmental stressors, but also makes them more vulnerable?
A) unrealistic expectations
B) dependence on adults
C) a lack of self-understanding
D) a limited understanding of death
17) Which statement about separation anxiety disorder is accurate?
A) The disorder is equally common in boys and girls.
B) The child with separation anxiety is likely to be immature and lack self-confidence.
C) Children who have the disorder commonly develop antisocial personality disorder as adults. D) It is a severe but extremely rare form of childhood anxiety disorder.
18) Which of the following is a possible explanation for the seeming lack of emotion in autistic children?
A) immaturity; they will show more as they get older
B) neurological impairment; they can feel but not show emotions
C) they have no emotions
D) they have a lack of social understanding
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19) In autistic children, head banging, spinning in circles, and rocking are behaviors that
A) are used because these children find repetitive routines very aversive.
B) are common forms of self-stimulation. e) are exceedingly rare.
D) are believed to be ways of communicating without language.
20) Despite studies such as by Ivar Lovaas, the overall prognosis for children with autism is
A) most will steadily improve as they age and become independent.
B) most will be able to live on their own and work at low-level jobs. e) extremely positive.
D) poor.
21) All of the following are social forces that affect teen drug use EXCEPT
A) increased potency of street drugs.
B) peer pressure.
e) depiction of drugs in television and film. D) parental drug use.
22) Suppose a family is quite alarmed about the threatening behavior of a relative. They want to petition the court for commitment but there is no time to get a court order. What option does the family have?
A) After getting a physician to state that the person is dangerous, they can have the police pick up and detain the person for up to 72 hours.
B) They can ask the police to declare the person “insane:’
e) After getting a police officer to examine the person, they can require the person’s attendance in a crisis intervention program.
D) None. They must wait until there is a court evaluation of the person’s dangerousness.
23) The insanity defense is employed in percent of capital cases in the United States.
A) roughly10-1S
B) 20
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24) Why did World War II lead to a greater recognition of the pervasiveness of mental illness?
A) Many women developed psychiatric conditions when left to raise families and make a living on
their own.
B) Over 70 of veterans suffered from either PTSD or substance abuse after the war. e) Two out of seven potential military recruits were rejected for psychiatric reasons.
D) The military was unable to provide adequate mental health services to men in the field.
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25) Most of NIMH’s programs are
A) designed, controlled, and implemented by the federal government.
B) actually planned and run by state and local organizations.
C) actually focused on the prevention of crime rather than mental disorder.
D) much larger and better funded than they were in the 19605 and 19705.
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Written Assignment for Unit Four
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a standard font (l.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1) What is the evidence for and against the dopamine hypothesis?
2) Your text lists nine types of impairment that are commonly found in neuropsychological disorders. List and describe five ofthem.
3) Discuss three principles that are commonly used to define insanity. How is insanity most commonly defined today?
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